Background Q. Prove that an Itô integral with respect to Brownian motion is a martingale My Attempt To prove that an Itô integral with respect to Brownian motion is a martingale (representing a "fair game" with no predictable drift), we look at the properties of the Itô integral stochastic process: It=0tHsdWsI_t = \int_0^t H_s \, dW_s where WsW_s is a standard Brownian motion and HsH_s is a suitably integrable, adapted process (meaning the trader cannot look into the future to pick their strategy HsH_s ). For ItI_t to be a martingale, it must satisfy two main conditions for any future time tt and present time ss (where sts \le t ): Integrability: E[It]<\mathbb{E}[\vert{}I_t\vert{}] < \infty The Martingale Condition: the conditional expectation of the future value given all information up to the present time ss must equal the present value: E[ItFs]=Is\mathbb{E}[I_t \mid \mathcal{F}_s] = I_s Proof. Let's split the integral into past and future segments. We can split the integral from 00 to tt into two pieces: from 0 to s\color{blue}{\text{from}\ 0 \ \text{to}\ s} , and from s to t\color{red}{\text{from}\ s \ \text{to}\ t} : It=0tHudWu=0sHudWu+stHudWuI_t = \int_0^t H_u \, dW_u = \color{blue}{\int_0^s H_u \, dW_u} + \color{red}{\int_s^t H_u \, dW_u} Notice that the first part ( 0sHudWu\int_0^s H_u \, dW_u ) is simply IsI_s , and it is already fully "known" (measurable) at time ss . Take the conditional expectation at time ss : E[ItFs]=E[0sHudWu+stHudWuFs]\mathbb{E}[I_t \mid \mathcal{F}_s] = \mathbb{E}\left[ \color{blue}{\int_0^s H_u \, dW_u} + \color{red}{\int_s^t H_u \, dW_u} \Bigg\vert{} \mathcal{F}_s \right] Split by linearity: E[ItFs]=E[0sHudWuFs]+E[stHudWuFs]\mathbb{E}[I_t \mid \mathcal{F}_s] = \mathbb{E}\left[ \color{blue}{\int_0^s H_u \, dW_u} \Bigg\vert{} \mathcal{F}_s \right] + \mathbb{E}\left[ \color{red}{\int_s^t H_u \, dW_u} \Bigg\vert{} \mathcal{F}_s \right] Evaluate both parts: the past: since 0sHudWu\int_0^s H_u \, dW_u ( IsI_s ) has already happened by time ss , its conditional expectation given current information is just itself: E[0sHudWuFs]=Is\mathbb{E}\left[ \color{blue}{\int_0^s H_u \, dW_u} \Bigg\vert{} \mathcal{F}_s \right] = \color{blue}{I_s} the future: by the fundamental property of Itô integrals over future intervals ( ss to tt ), the expected value of future Brownian increments given current information is 00 (the definition of a fair game with no drift): E[stHudWuFs]=0\mathbb{E}\left[ \color{red}{\int_s^t H_u \, dW_u} \Bigg\vert{} \mathcal{F}_s \right] = \color{red}{0} Combine both of them: E[ItFs]=Is+0=Is\mathbb{E}[I_t \mid \mathcal{F}_s] = \color{blue}{I_s} + \color{red}{0} = I_s Because the conditional expectation of the future Itô integral equals its current value ( E[ItFs]=Is\mathbb{E}[I_t \mid \mathcal{F}_s] = I_s ), the Itô integral is a martingale. This mathematically guarantees that we cannot systematically make or lose expected profit over time using a non-anticipating trading strategy in a frictionless market. \blacksquare My Question If E[ItFs]=Is\mathbb{E}[I_t \mid \mathcal{F}_s] = I_s means that the expected future value equals our current value, not zero. Therefore, if our current Itô integral value is Is=0I_s = 0 , the expected future value is 00 ? if our current value is positive (e.g., I_s = \\\500inprofit)ornegative(e.g.,in profit) or negative (e.g.,I_s = -\$200inloss),ourexpectedfuturevalueiswhateverourcurrentvalueis(in loss), our expected future value is whatever our current value is (500oror-200)?itsa"fairgame"becauseourexpectedchangefromrightnowintothefutureiszero()? it's a "fair game" because our expected change from right now into the future is zero (\mathbb{E}[I_t - I_s \mid \mathcal{F}_s] = 0$ ). Therefore, we don't have an automatic upward drift or downward pull, as we are expected to stay right where we currently are on average? Did I get this correct?