While trying to price an option on a future using a binomial tree, I found out in a manual (Actuarial Finance by Boudreault and Renaud) that we need to calculate F0F_0 , and then apply the up and down factor on this value. I am wondering why we don't model the stock value instead and use the formula FtT=Stexp(r(Tt))F_t^T = S_t\exp(r(T-t)) ? For me this seems more intuitive; it would give us the same value for an option on a stock and an option on a future with the same maturity which makes sense (same payout = same initial value).