Here is the setup: one period binomial model The market has three assets: bank account BB , asset SS , and asset KK r=0r = 0 , so payoff for asset invested at bank at any tt is 11 S0=100,Su=120S_0 = 100, S_u = 120 and Sd=80.S_d = 80. K0=10,Ku=15K_0 = 10, K_u = 15 and Kd=5K_d = 5 Lets say KuK_u is different and I want to find a type 1 (type A) arbitrage . How can I do this? I know that there are certain conditions for type 1, V0=0,p(Vt0)=1V_0=0, p(V_t \ge 0) = 1 and p(VT>0)p(V_T > 0) So VT=a+bKT+cSTV_T = a + b K_T + c S_T V0=a+bK0+cS0=a+10b+100cV_0 = a + b K_0 + c S_0 = a + 10b + 100c So what does it mean to "find" a type 1 arbitrage? Does it mean to construct a portfolio? So am I finding the values of a,b,ca,b,c ? I can let V0=0V_0 = 0 , so this is one equation and I guess I need VTV_T (up and down case) to be VT0 V_T \ge 0 ? But in this case my up case for K_T is some deterministic x15x \ne 15 . How do I formulate this problem? Does this approach make sense? Am I understanding the problem?