If we consider the CRR-model in two periods, i.e. T=2. Let S1S^1 be the risky asset with S01=100S_0^1=100 and S0S^0 the bond with S00=1S_0^0=1 . Furthermore, we assume the model is arbitrage-free with yb=0.1<r=0.05<yg=0.2y_b=-0.1<r=0.05<y_g=0.2 . Therefore, an unique equivalent martingale measure Q\mathbb{Q} exists with Q({ω})=0.5Z1({ω})+Z2({ω})0.52Z1({ω})Z2({ω})\mathbb{Q}(\lbrace\omega\rbrace) =0.5^{Z_1(\lbrace\omega\rbrace)+Z_2(\lbrace\omega\rbrace)}\cdot 0.5^{2-Z_1(\lbrace\omega\rbrace)-Z_2(\lbrace\omega\rbrace)} , where ω{0,1}2\omega\in\lbrace 0,1\rbrace^2 .